Re: LL(2) always factorable to LL(1)?

Chris F Clark <cfc@world.std.com>
23 Jan 1998 00:21:07 -0500

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LL(2) always factorable to LL(1)? aduncan@cs.ucsb.edu (Andrew M. Duncan) (1998-01-17)
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Re: LL(2) always factorable to LL(1)? bill@amber.ssd.csd.harris.com (1998-01-21)
Re: LL(2) always factorable to LL(1)? mickunas@cs.uiuc.edu (1998-01-23)
Re: LL(2) always factorable to LL(1)? cfc@world.std.com (Chris F Clark) (1998-01-23)
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| List of all articles for this month |
From: Chris F Clark <cfc@world.std.com>
Newsgroups: comp.compilers
Date: 23 Jan 1998 00:21:07 -0500
Organization: The World Public Access UNIX, Brookline, MA
References: 98-01-071 98-01-080 98-01-086
Keywords: parse

Bill Leonard is correct. I went back and checked. The LL languages
are distinct classes for each k and are a subset of the LR languages,
which are the same for any k. I don't know how I got misled into
believing that the LL languages were equal to the LR languages--I have
held that misconception for a long time. In the compiler book where I
looked up the correct fact, there were no examples of LL(2) but not
LL(1) languages nor LR(1) and not LL(k) languages, so I cannot provide
any examples.


My apologies for any confusion I might have caused,
-Chris


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