# Re: Is infinity equal to infinity?

## miker3@ix.netcom.com (Michael Rubenstein)21 Jul 1998 11:09:50 -0400

From comp.compilers

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[11 earlier articles]
Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? erikr@iar.se (Erik Runeson) (1998-07-20)
Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? larry.jones@sdrc.com (Larry Jones) (1998-07-20)
Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? darcy@usul.CS.Berkeley.EDU (1998-07-20)
Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? darcy@usul.CS.Berkeley.EDU (1998-07-20)
Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? darcy@usul.CS.Berkeley.EDU (1998-07-20)
Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? joachim.durchholz@munich.netsurf.de (Joachim Durchholz) (1998-07-20)
Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? miker3@ix.netcom.com (1998-07-21)
Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? dwcantrell@aol.com (1998-07-24)
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 From: miker3@ix.netcom.com (Michael Rubenstein) Newsgroups: sci.math.num-analysis,comp.lang.c,sci.math,comp.compilers Date: 21 Jul 1998 11:09:50 -0400 Organization: ICGNetcom Distribution: inet References: 98-07-058 98-07-114 98-07-136 Keywords: arithmetic, comment

On 20 Jul 1998 17:00:48 -0400, darcy@usul.CS.Berkeley.EDU (Joseph D.
Darcy) wrote:

>The limit of the ratio of two functions tending toward zero can be
>arbitrary; therefore, 0/0 is NaN. However, if the numerator converges
>on some non-zero value c, the ratio is +/-infinity. Therefore, in
>IEEE arithmetic x/0 is +/-infinity for any finite, non-zero x.

let

x(i) = 1;
y(i) = (-1)^i/i

then

lim(i->inf) x(i) = 1
lim(i->inf) y(i) = 0
lim(i->inf) x(i) / y(i) = ?
--
Michael M Rubenstein
[I think the word "continuous" got lost somewhere in there. -John]
--

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