Re: Is infinity equal to infinity?

Matthias Fischmann <fis@mpi-sb.mpg.de>
10 Jul 1998 21:00:01 -0400

          From comp.compilers

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From: Matthias Fischmann <fis@mpi-sb.mpg.de>
Newsgroups: comp.compilers
Date: 10 Jul 1998 21:00:01 -0400
Organization: CIP-Pool der Philosophischen Fakultaet der Universitaet des Saarlandes
References: 98-07-058
Keywords: arithmetic

Erik Runeson <erikr@iar.se> writes:
> When comparing floating-point numbers, should infinity (Inf) be
> concidered equal to infinity?


Mathematics: two sets A and B have the same size if there is a
bijection from elements of A to elements of B, (a table that uniquely
maps pairs of elements so that no element in either set remains
unmapped.)


According to this definition and if you assume Inf to be the number of
a denumerably infinite set A and Inf' that of a denumerably infinite
set B, you have Inf == Inf'.


That's an argument, but what you decide to do still depends on what
infinities you are dealing with. (Does is make sense to think of them
sizes of sets? If so, are the sets denumerable, i.e. you give an
algorithm that returns any argument in a finite period of time?)


Don't know if this helps?




  -Matthias
--
Max-Planck-Institut für Informatik | Deutsches Forschungszentrum für KI
fis@mpi-sb.mpg.de | fischman@dfki.de
http://www.mpi-sb.mpg.de/~fis |
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