| Related articles |
|---|
| An example LL(K) language that is not LL(K-1) ? klyjikoo@gmail.com (klyjikoo) (2010-01-26) |
| Re: An example LL(K) language that is not LL(K-1) ? haberg_20080406@math.su.se (Hans Aberg) (2010-01-28) |
| An example LL(K) language that is not LL(K-1) ? chakaram@auth.gr (Chariton Karamitas) (2010-02-01) |
| Re: An example LL(K) language that is not LL(K-1) ? klyjikoo@gmail.com (klyjikoo) (2010-02-02) |
| Re: An example LL(K) language that is not LL(K-1) ? cfc@shell01.TheWorld.com (Chris F Clark) (2010-02-03) |
| Re: An example LL(K) language that is not LL(K-1) ? kkylheku@gmail.com (Kaz Kylheku) (2010-02-03) |
| Re: An example LL(K) language that is not LL(K-1) ? daniel.eliason@excite.com (fortunatus) (2010-02-04) |
| [9 later articles] |
| From: | klyjikoo <klyjikoo@gmail.com> |
| Newsgroups: | comp.compilers |
| Date: | Tue, 26 Jan 2010 04:00:10 +0330 |
| Organization: | Compilers Central |
| Keywords: | parse, LL(1) |
| Posted-Date: | 28 Jan 2010 01:19:34 EST |
Hi!
I think any LL(K) grammar without semantic actions can be transformed into an
LL(1) grammar...
But i found in resourses that LL(K) is stronger than LL(K-1) ....
I search a lot for an example that can show this...but not found any
and i am currently confusing about this issue.
sue kelly
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