Related articles |
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LALR1 and LL1 neelesh.bodas@gmail.com (Neelesh Bodas) (2005-04-11) |
Re: LALR1 and LL1 schmitz@i3s.unice.fr (Sylvain Schmitz) (2005-04-16) |
Re: LALR1 and LL1 148f3wg02@sneakemail.com (Karsten Nyblad) (2005-04-26) |
Re: LALR1 and LL1 schmitz@i3s.unice.fr (Sylvain Schmitz) (2005-04-26) |
Re: LALR1 and LL1 haberg@math.su.se (2005-04-28) |
Re: LALR1 and LL1 148f3wg02@sneakemail.com (Karsten Nyblad) (2005-04-30) |
Re: LALR1 and LL1 schmitz@i3s.unice.fr (Sylvain Schmitz) (2005-05-02) |
[1 later articles] |
From: | Neelesh Bodas <neelesh.bodas@gmail.com> |
Newsgroups: | comp.compilers |
Date: | 11 Apr 2005 00:14:46 -0400 |
Organization: | Compilers Central |
Keywords: | parse, theory, question |
Posted-Date: | 11 Apr 2005 00:14:46 EDT |
Hi,
I had a question -
I know that every LL1 grammar is by definition an LR1 grammar. What I
want to know is that :
is every LL1 grammar an LALR1 grammar?
In either case (No/Yes), I would be thankful if I could get a
counterexample/proof for the claim or any pointers for the same.
Thanks,
Neelesh
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