Re: Compiler and interpreter origins

glen herrmannsfeldt <gah@ugcs.caltech.edu>
7 Sep 2004 23:52:42 -0400

          From comp.compilers
Related articles
[8 earlier articles]
Re: Compiler and interpreter origins Martin.Ward@durham.ac.uk (Martin Ward) (2004-08-10)
Re: Compiler and interpreter origins samiam@moorecad.com (Scott Moore) (2004-08-10)
Re: Compiler and interpreter origins beliavsky@aol.com (2004-08-11)
Re: Compiler and interpreter origins david.thompson1@worldnet.att.net (Dave Thompson) (2004-08-23)
Re: Compiler and interpreter origins jeremy.wright@microfocus.com (Jeremy Wright) (2004-08-25)
Re: Compiler and interpreter origins torbenm@diku.dk (2004-09-03)
Re: Compiler and interpreter origins gah@ugcs.caltech.edu (glen herrmannsfeldt) (2004-09-07)
| List of all articles for this month |
From: glen herrmannsfeldt <gah@ugcs.caltech.edu>
Newsgroups: comp.compilers
Date: 7 Sep 2004 23:52:42 -0400
Organization: Comcast Online
References: 04-07-077 04-08-010 04-08-033 04-08-108 04-08-146 04-09-005
Keywords: history, architecture
Posted-Date: 07 Sep 2004 23:52:42 EDT

Torben Ęgidius Mogensen wrote:
(snip regarding self modifying code)


> If you are working with a system that uses interpreted byte-code,
> the difference becomes muddled: If a program modifies its byte-code,
> is that self-modifying code? The byte-code is definitely modified,
> but you can argue that that the actual code is the interpreter,
> which isn't modified. If you add JIT compilation to the byte-code
> interpreter, the issue becomes even murkier.


And if your machine is microprogrammed, does that make a
difference?


If it has writable control store?


If programs are allowed to write into the writable control store?


If the JIT compiler writes to writable control store?


If programs interpreted by the JIT compiler can write to
the writable control store?


Lots of very murky possibilities.


-- glen


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