21 Jul 1998 11:09:50 -0400

Related articles |
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[11 earlier articles] |

Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? erikr@iar.se (Erik Runeson) (1998-07-20) |

Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? larry.jones@sdrc.com (Larry Jones) (1998-07-20) |

Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? darcy@usul.CS.Berkeley.EDU (1998-07-20) |

Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? darcy@usul.CS.Berkeley.EDU (1998-07-20) |

Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? darcy@usul.CS.Berkeley.EDU (1998-07-20) |

Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? joachim.durchholz@munich.netsurf.de (Joachim Durchholz) (1998-07-20) |

Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? miker3@ix.netcom.com (1998-07-21) |

Re: Is infinity equal to infinity? dwcantrell@aol.com (1998-07-24) |

From: | miker3@ix.netcom.com (Michael Rubenstein) |

Newsgroups: | sci.math.num-analysis,comp.lang.c,sci.math,comp.compilers |

Date: | 21 Jul 1998 11:09:50 -0400 |

Organization: | ICGNetcom |

Distribution: | inet |

References: | 98-07-058 98-07-114 98-07-136 |

Keywords: | arithmetic, comment |

On 20 Jul 1998 17:00:48 -0400, darcy@usul.CS.Berkeley.EDU (Joseph D.

Darcy) wrote:

*>The limit of the ratio of two functions tending toward zero can be*

*>arbitrary; therefore, 0/0 is NaN. However, if the numerator converges*

*>on some non-zero value c, the ratio is +/-infinity. Therefore, in*

*>IEEE arithmetic x/0 is +/-infinity for any finite, non-zero x.*

let

x(i) = 1;

y(i) = (-1)^i/i

then

lim(i->inf) x(i) = 1

lim(i->inf) y(i) = 0

lim(i->inf) x(i) / y(i) = ?

--

Michael M Rubenstein

[I think the word "continuous" got lost somewhere in there. -John]

--

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