|Proof of inherent ambiguity? firstname.lastname@example.org (2004-09-24)|
|Re: Proof of inherent ambiguity? email@example.com (Nathan Sanders) (2004-09-25)|
|Re: Proof of inherent ambiguity? firstname.lastname@example.org (Rafael 'Dido' Sevilla) (2004-09-25)|
|Re: Proof of inherent ambiguity? email@example.com (2004-09-25)|
|Re: Proof of inherent ambiguity? firstname.lastname@example.org (Brian M. Scott) (2004-09-25)|
|Re: Proof of inherent ambiguity? email@example.com (Rick Decker) (2004-09-25)|
|Re: Proof of inherent ambiguity? Michael.J.Fromberger@Dartmouth.EDU (Michael J. Fromberger) (2004-09-25)|
|[1 later articles]|
|From:||firstname.lastname@example.org (Dave Ohlsson)|
|Date:||24 Sep 2004 00:26:52 -0400|
|Keywords:||parse, theory, question|
|Posted-Date:||24 Sep 2004 00:26:52 EDT|
A context-free grammar is said to be ambiguous if at least one string
in the context-free language defined by that grammar has more than one
parse tree with that grammar.
A context-free language is said to be inherently ambiguous if all the
context-free grammars of that language are ambiguous.
Now, I wonder how one can prove inherent ambiguity.
Could anyone give an example of an inherently ambiguous context-free
language AND the proof that that language is inherently ambiguous?
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