Re: What is the trick of languages being LL(k+1), but not LL(k)?

Oliver Zeigermann <oliver@zeigermann.de>
22 Jan 2004 23:13:26 -0500

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From: Oliver Zeigermann <oliver@zeigermann.de>
Newsgroups: comp.compilers
Date: 22 Jan 2004 23:13:26 -0500
Organization: T-Online
References: 04-01-062 04-01-098
Keywords: parse, LL(1)
Posted-Date: 22 Jan 2004 23:13:25 EST

Clayton Weaver wrote:
> Do you mean "the Hopkins reason"?
> (<http://www.uwm.edu/~whopkins/cs/CompFAQ.txt>


Even though in a private conversation Clayton gave me some hints, this
still occurs quite weird to me. I think if I could make any sense of it
it would be really interesting. Does anyone else have any experience
with seeing parsing and formal languages as algebraic systems?


Cheers,


Oliver


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